EAVI2020Welcome - EAVI2020

QUESTION 11 If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send? A. 0-4 B. 0-5 C. 0-6 D. 0-2 E. 0-1 Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12 If a router has 3 hosts connected lead4pass 300-101 practice test in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router? A. 5 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: BQUESTION 13 What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.) A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 14 Which feature facilitate the JN0-643 tagging of a specific VLAN? A. Routing B. Hair pinning C. Encapsulation D. Switching Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15 What does split horizon prevent? A. routing loops, link state B. routing loops, distance vector C. switching loops, STP D. switching loops, VTP Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16 Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process ? A. interface B. virtual IP address C. priority D. router ID Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17 Which of the following is needed 4a0-107 to be enable back the role of active in HSRP? A. preempt B. priority Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18 Which of the following privilege level is the most secured? A. Level 0 B. Level 1 C. Level 15 D. Level 16 Correct Answer: C QUESTION 19 Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used? A. unicast B. multicast C. anycast D. broadcast Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20 Which range represents the C2090-930 standard access list? A. 99 B. 150 C. 299 D. 2000 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21 What to do when the router password was forgotten? A. use default password cisco to reset B. access router physically C. use ssl/vpn D. Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1 Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22 Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line? A. telnet B. ssh C. vtp D. vpn E. dmvpn Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23 How do you configure a hostname? A. Router(config)#hostname R11Z0-060 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24 Which technology you will choose to connect multiple sites with secure connections? A. Point-to-point B. DMVPN C. vpn Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25 What routing protocol use first-hand information? A. link-stateB. distance-vector C. path-vector Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26 Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices? A. Show cdp neighbors detail B. Show cdp neighbor C. Show cdp interface D. Show cdp traffic 600-199 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27 Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?(choose two) A. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing tables. B. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases. C. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors. D. Route summarization iscompued automatically by the router. E. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links F. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables,using automatic updates. G. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes. Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 28 Which of the following 070-410 are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choosse two) A. 50 B. 1550 C. 150 D. 1250 E. 2050 Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 29 What does split-horizon do? A. Prevent routing loop in distance vector protocol B. Prevent switching loop in distance vector protocol C. Prevent switching loop in link-state protocol D. Prevent routing loop in link-state protocol Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30 Which statement about vlan operation on cisco catalyst switches is true? A. when a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk,the vlan id can be determined from the source MAC address table. B. unkown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the ports D. broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31 Refer to exhibit. Which command can 300-115 dumps you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface? A. router# show protocols B. router#show startup-config C. router#show line D. router#show interface gig0/1 Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32 When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting? A. When you lack the proper to resolve the issue. B. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected C. When you have gathered all information about an issue D. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min Correct Answer: C QUESTION 33 Which two authentic methods are compatible with MLPPP on a serial Interface?(choose two) A. PEAP B. CHAP C. TACACS+ D. PAP E. LEAP Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 34 Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.) A. 172.16.9.0 B. 172.16.8.0 C. 172.16.31.0 D. 172.16.20.0 Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 35 Which type does a port become 70-331 when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge? A. The designated port B. The backup port C. The alternate port D. The root port Correct Answer: D QUESTION 36 Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface? A. The interface number B. The port priority C. The VLAN priorityD. The hello time Correct Answer: B QUESTION 37 Which statement about VLAN configuration is true? A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN B. The switch must be in config-vlan 070-346 mode before you configure an extended VLAN C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064 D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only Correct Answer: A QUESTION 38 How Eigrp for ipv6 configuration done? (Choose two) A. uses process number B. neighbor configured directly C. configured driectly on interface D. configured globally interface E. have shutdown feature Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 39 interface fa0/0 ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224 router bgp XXX neighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0. A. x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224 B. x.x.x.32 255.255.255.224 C. x.x.x.32 mask 0.0.0.31 D. x.x.x.33 mask 255.255.255.224 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 40 Which two statements about LLDP are true?(choose two) A. It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices B. It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3 C. It is a Cisco-proprietary technology D. It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11a specification E. It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer Correct Answer: AEC2020-703 QUESTION 1 A multinational enterprise company has many branches in the Americas, Europe, and Asia Pacific with headquarters in London. Branch offices use Ethernet (bandwidth range from 1 Mb/s to 10 Mb/s) as access technology to connect to the headquarters and the regional hubs. The company is currently implementing VolP and QoS in all their locations, and they are worried about jitter between their branches and the headquarters. Which option reduces the effect of jitter? A. buffering at endpoints B. Call Admission Control C. increase the bandwidth of the links D. WRED Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2 Which option described a difference 117-202 between Ansible and Puppet? A. Ansible is client-server based and puppet is not B. Ansible requires an agent and puppet does not C. Ansible is python and puppet is ruby based D. Ansible automates repetetive tasks and puppet allow you to run plain ssh commands Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3 In a Cisco ACI environment, which option best describes "contracts"? A. a set of interaction rules between endpoint groups B. a Layer 3 forwarding domain C. to determine endpoint group membership status D. named groups of related endpoints Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4 You are designing a network solution to connect a primary data center to a disaster recovery site. The applications hosted on the site will 070-412 be mainly web and email servers that are provided through a virtualized environment. A third data center facility may also be added in the next sixth months. for this Which connectivity type is appropriate design? A. point-to-point GRE tunnels B. L2TPv3 C. VPWS D. VPLS Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5 Which workflow-based software solution provides automation and orchestration processes for compute, network, and storage with support for these features? single-pane infrastructure management, support for multiple hypervisors, storage provisioning with EMC and NetApp, abstraction of hardware and software elements into more than 1000 programmable lead4pass 100-105 workflows, self-provisioning of virtual machines using catalogs. A. OpenStack B. AnsibleC. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud D. Cisco UCS Director Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6 A company wants to prioritize voice traffic at their network edge and ensure that it has reserved some minimum bandwidth and treated with priority in the core. QoS is not currently implemented in the core, but MPLS with RSVP as the signaling protocol is already enabled. Which three actions do you recommend to optimize the voice traffic in the core with minimal changes? (Choose 3) A. Configure PHB queueing policies on every core node based on the DSCP value. B. Create GRE tunnels through the core and configure PBR to forward the voice traffic into those tunnels. C. Create RSVP tunnels through the core, reserving a minimum bandwidth for voice traffic. D. Perform class-based tunnel selection to forward voice packets through MPLS tunnels in the core based on DSCP value. E. Enable LDP throughout the core and 70-487 configure PHB queueing policies based on the MPLS EXP field. F. Mark the voice traffic at the network edge with a specific DSCP value. Correct Answer: CDF QUESTION 7 Which two functions are performed at the core layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model? (Choose 2) A. QoS classification and marking boundary B. fast transport C. reliability D. fault isolation E. load balancing Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 8 You are assisting in convergence optimization for an MPLS network. Which option should you recommend to prevent microloops in the core backbone of the service provider? A. RSVP-TE B. RLFA C. LFA D. prefix suppression Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9 As the new network designer for a manufacturing 117-201 company, you are designing this resilient Ethernet ring for the plant Ethernet network that is connected to the core, which does not use STP. Both edge ports are on the same switch in a ring segment. There is connectivity between the edge ports throughout the segment, so you can create a redundant connection between any two switches in the ring. Which three options are characteristics of this design? (Choose 3) A. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a logically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network. B. If all ports in the segment are operational, then two ports are in the blocked state for each VLAN. C. If VLAN load balancing is configured, then one port in the segment controls the blocked state of VLANs. D. If all ports in the segment are operational,C9530-404 then one port is in the blocked state for each VLAN. E. If one or more ports in a segment are not operational, thereby causing a link failure, then all portsforward traffic on all VLANs to ensure connectivity. F. If a link fails, then the alternate ports quickly unblock. When the failed link comes back up, a physically blocked port per VLAN is selected with minimal disruption to the network. Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 10 Which are two general SDN characteristics? (Choose 2) A. OVSDB is an application database management protocol. B. Northbound interfaces are open interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane. C. OpenFlow is considered one of the first 4a0-100 Northbound APIs used by SDN controllers. D. Southbound interface are interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane. E. The separation of the control plane from the data plane. Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 11 Which two benefits can be obtained by protecting the control plane of a network device? (Choose two.) A. Maintains remote management access to the router B. Preserves the confidentiality of traffic encrypted by IPsec C. Prevents the delivery of packets from spoof sources D. Maintains routing protocol adjacencies with local neighbors Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 12 The service provider that you work 352-001 for wants to offer IPv6 internet service to its customers without upgrading all of its access equipment to support IPv6. Which transition technology do you recommend? A. CGN B. NAT64 C. dual-stack CPE D. 6RD Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13 How should you compensate for jitter on an IP network so it carries real-time VolP traffic with acceptable voice transmission quality? A. Set up VAD to replace gaps on speech with comfort noise. B. Set up a playout buffer to play back the voice stream. C. Deploy RSVP for dynamic VolP packet classification. D. Change CODEC from G.729 to G.711. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14 Which three of the following security controls lead4pass 352-001 would you take into consideration when implementing IoT capabilities? A. Layered security approach B. Place security above functionality C. Define lifecycle controls for IoT devices D. Privacy impact AssessmentE. Change passwords every 90 days F. Implement intrusion detection systems on IoT Devices Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 15 You must design this network for IP Fast Reroute by enabling the OSPF Loop-Free Alternates feature (not Remote Loop-Free Alternates). Which two options are concerns about the proposed solution? (Choose 2) A. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is not supported on ring topologies. B. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates on ring topologies are prone to routing loops. C. Fast Reroute requires MPLS TE. D. The solution is prone to microloops in case of congestion E. OSPF Loop-Free Alternates is transport 4a0-100 dependent. Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 16 You are asked to design an RSVP-TE LSP protection solution for a large service provider network. Which traffic protection mechanism is highly scalable and ensures that multiple LSPs always terminate at the same merge point? A. detour LSPs B. 1:1 protection C. 1:N protection D. shared-explicit reservation style Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17 In Layer 2 access campus design, which mechanism should be enabled on access ports to protect the campus network from undesired access 1z0-051 dumps switches and looped ports? A. root guard B. EtherChannel guard C. BPDU guard D. loop guard Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18 Which option describes a design benefit of root guard? A. It makes the port go immediately into the forwarding state after being connected. B. It does not generate a spanning-tree topology change upon connecting and disconnecting a station on a port. C. It allows small, unmanaged switches to be RCDD-001 plugged into ports of access switches without the risk of switch loops. D. It prevents switch loops by detecting one-way communications on the physical port. E. It prevents switch loops caused by unidirectional point-to-point link condition on Rapid PVST+ and MST. F. It prevents switched traffic from traversing suboptimal paths on the network. Correct Answer: F QUESTION 19 A network is designed to use OSPF to 400-351 vce reach eBGP peers. Which condition should be avoided so that the eBGP peers do not flap continuously in case of link failure?A. Advertise via a non-backbone OSPF area IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements. B. Advertise via eBGP IP addresses used on eBGP peer statements. C. Disable BGP synchronization. D. Use an ACL to block BGP in one direction. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20 Which two IEEE standards are commonly h12-211 pdf used at the data link layer for an access network, in an loT environment? (Choose 2) A. 802.11 B. 802.16 C. 802.15.4 D. 1901.2 NB-PLC E. 802.22 Correct Answer: ACQUESTION 21 Which two steps can be taken by the sinkhole technique? (Choose two.) A. Delay an attack from reaching its target B. Redirect an attack away from its target C. Monitor attack noise, scans, and other activity D. Reverse the direction of an attack Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 22 What is a correct design consideration of IPv6 MLD snooping? A. MLD snooping requires IGMP snooping to be implemented. B. MLD snooping conserves CPU by sharing IPv4 and IPv6 multicast topology. C. MLD snooping is used to filter all MLD queries. D. MLD snooping conserves bandwidth on switches. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23 The Middle East-based cloud service provider, CSP, is planning to launch five data centers in Egypt, United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, and Turkey. CSP is looking for VLAN extension and DCIs between these five data centers to allow C2090-930 exam for software replication, where original and backup VMs must be on the same subnet. Which tunneling technology must they use? A. VPWS B. L2TPv3 C. IPsec VPN D. VPLS Correct Answer: D QUESTION 24 A service provider wants to use a controller to automate the provisioning of service function chaining. Which two overlay technologies can be used with EVPN MP-BGP to create the service chains in the data center? (Choose 2)A. MPLS L2VPN B. 802.1Q C. MPLSoGRE D. VXLAN E. Provider Backbone Bridging EVPN Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 25 In secure IP multicast, which protocol handles group key management? A. IPsec B. GDOI C. MD5 D. SHA-256 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26 What is a characteristic of DMVPN as related to IP multicast? A. The RP should be placed either in the core network or on the DMVPN headend. B. When the multicast source is at a spoke, 102-400 exam the data flows directly towards the spokes that want to receive the traffic. C. Multicast on DMVPN is similar in behavior to the broadcast multi-access network. D. The RP is typically placed at the spoke router. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27 Your company requires two diverse multihop eBGP peerings to a partner network. Which two methods should you use to improve lost peer detection? (Choose 2) A. Use Fast Peering Session Deactivation for the peers. B. Use sub-second keepalives for the peers. C. Use sub-second hold timers for the peers. D. Use sub-second minimum route advertisement Interval timers for the peers. E. Use Selective Address Tracking and match the peers. Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 28 Which two Layer 2 features should be applied to the network location identified by a circle? (Choose two) A. UDLC B. PortFast C. PortFast trunk D. BPDU filter E. loop guard F. BPDU guard Correct Answer: BF QUESTION 29 When data center 2 has a spanning-tree convergence event, data center 1 also sees high CPU utilization on its switches. Which mechanism can reduce high CPU issue in this situation?A. Enable BPDU guard between 70-696 pdf switches A and D. B. Enable BPDU filter between the routers B and C. C. Enable BPDU filter between the switches A and D. D. Enable BPDU guard between routers B and C. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30 When designing a network that consists of multiple IPv6 multicast servers on a Layer 2 VLAN, which option should you consider regarding IPv6 multicast traffic forwarding? A. The RP IP address is embedded in IPv6 multicast address. B. IPv6 multicast addresses are assigned based on network prefix. C. IPv6 multicast addresses are assigned by IANA. D. IPv6 multicast flooding optimization requires Layer 2 switches support of MLD snooping. Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 500-230 Exam Name: Cisco Service 500-230 dumps Provider Routing Field Engineer Exam Version: DemoQUESTION 1 Which underlying protocol(s) does LDP utilize to communicate with LDP Peers? A. UDP and TCP B. UDP only C. LDP uses IP Protocol 646 and does not rely on UDP or TCP D. TCP only Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2 Which command is used to undo a change after issuing a commit command? A. router# rollback configuration to -1 B. router(config# commit undo C. router(config)# commit rollback D. router# rollback configuration last 1 Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3 What command is used to manually generate a core dump to aid in troubleshooting a process? A. context B. dumpcore C. exception D. follow Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4 What is the TRACE command? A. A packet tracer showing the path 98-381 dumps of a packet from ingress to egress in the router. B. The replacement for TraceRoute in IOS-XR. C. A form of always-on debugging available for a subset of commands. D. Exactly the same as the debug command, must be explicitly turned on. Correct Answer: C1z0-574 dumps - All Exam Dumps cissp dumps 2017 Passleader Cisco400-251 dumps | 400-251 Exam Questions - Free Try

Welcome

Bienvenue

Welcome to the EAVI2020 project!

EAVI2020 is a 23 million euro initiative to accelerate the search for an effective HIV vaccine.

Vaccines are the most powerful public health tools available. Developing safe, effective and affordable vaccines that can prevent HIV infection in uninfected people is the best hope for controlling and ultimately ending the HIV epidemic. Developing a therapeutic vaccine could also be beneficial for people living with HIV by helping slow the progression of the disease and prevent or delay the onset of AIDS. Scientists in this consortium are pooling their expertise to make this possible.

Bienvenue dans le projet EAVI!

EAVI2020 est une initiative de 23 million d’euros pour accélérer la recherche d’un vaccin contre le VIH.

Les vaccins sont l’outil de santé publique le plus puissant au monde. Développer un vaccin sûr, efficace et abordable, qui protègerait d’une infection par le VIH est la meilleure solution pour mettre un terme à l’épidémie causée par ce virus. Le développement d’un vaccin thérapeutique pourrait également être bénéfique pour les personnes infectées vivants avec le VIH, en prevenant ou ralentissant l’apparition du SIDA. Les scientifiques de ce consortium rassemblent leurs expertises pour rendre cela possible.